Re: Whatever happenned to HTTP 1.1 Pipelining
Marc Slemko (marcs@znep.com)
Fri, 27 Apr 2001 10:36:22 -0700 (PDT)
On Fri, 27 Apr 2001 dillon@hns.com wrote:
> Thankyou for digging that up, but does it
> mean that by a server SHOULD or MUST use self-defined message
> lengths? This doesn't seem to give the browser author any assurance
> that his pipelined requests won't be aborted by a premature connection
> close due to a no CONTENT-LENGTH response.
Then they have to resend the requsts to which they have not received
responses. This is why only idempotent requests can be pipelined.
>
> Seems to me that you only pipeline after you've gotton one
> request through a connection because you don't know whether the
> other end supports persistent connections. After that first request, which
> handles the negotiation, you'd like to be able to pipeline with worry about the
> pipeline being
> cut off.
You always have to worry about the possibility that the pipeline is cut
off.